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3 minutes ago, 1996 said:

What time is the press conference today?

You know you can look at the countdown right :P

3 hours and 31 minutes from now so 3pm EST.  First one I can watch at work and not at the bar lol

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1 hour ago, Rheo said:

You know you can look at the countdown right :P

3 hours and 31 minutes from now so 3pm EST.  First one I can watch at work and not at the bar lol

When does the counter reset? At the start of the event or sometime after? 

I’m more curious at this point if they’re skipping a week or not.

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5 minutes ago, BuzzAndSting said:

When does the counter reset? At the start of the event or sometime after? 

I’m more curious at this point if they’re skipping a week or not.

To be seriously accurate....

 

2155.jpg

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1 hour ago, admin said:

To be seriously accurate....

 

2155.jpg

Yes, but: 

Event "A" is an observable changing function of time, "t" or A(t) = a(t) where the functional form of a(t) could be 15sin(7t) if the observable event A were the oscillatory positions of a pendulum, swinging with amplitude 15 in some system of units. (I use this example, despite its having repetive occurances of "A" because the inverse function has a well know name and that helps in my specific illustration/example.) Likewise some other changing observable event, say B(t), which if you still need specifics you could consider to be the position of Mars in its journey around the sun, but lets be general. We have two equations: A(t)=a(t) and B(t)= b(t). Inverting (Solving each separately for "t") we get: t=a'(A) and t=b'(B).

As I fear some are already confused, i.e. not with me any longer, I will briefly return to the specific example: This inversion of the equations with the prior specific example: A(t) = 15 sin(7t) leads to 7t = arcsin(A/15) or t= {arcsin(A/15)}/7 which for convenience and generality, I have called a'(A). (The function form of a' ,which was an "arcsin" in this specific example, is only expressible in the general case symbolically and I have chosen a'(A) to represent it.) Becoming more general still by considering some other observable, C, I get: t = c'(C) etc. for every observable in the universe. Now eliminating time from all equations of the universe (and this is the proof that it is not needed to describe all observables in the universe) we have: a'(A) = b'(B) = c'(C) = ..... That is every observable in the universe can in principle be related directly to any other observable without any reference to time.

Reference https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/time-does-not-exist-math-proof.65439/

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